PANCE Infectious Disease Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which single-agent regimen is acceptable for CAP in patients with significant comorbidities?
• Airborne isolation precautions are required for which infections?
• Which of the following is NOT a recommended post-exposure prophylaxis option after meningococcal exposure?
• Which HPV genotypes are high-risk types most associated with neoplasia?
• What is a standard first-line treatment for uncomplicated chlamydial infection?
• In mucormycosis management, which adjunct procedure is essential?
• The two most common pathogens causing neonatal meningitis are which?
• What is the recommended initial IV fluid bolus in the sepsis protocol for hypotension or lactate ≥4 mmol/L?
• What is the diagnostic method to confirm esophageal candidiasis?
• Which antibiotics are most strongly associated with C. difficile infection?
• First-line therapy for uncomplicated cystitis in a nonpregnant, nonimmunosuppressed woman?
• What is the first-line treatment for early syphilis?
• Which antibiotic is an appropriate empiric oral therapy for uncomplicated nonpurulent cellulitis in an immunocompetent adult?
• Which combination represents empiric therapy for HAP/VAP with risk for Pseudomonas and MRSA?
• Induction therapy for cryptococcal meningitis in HIV infection: which regimen is preferred for induction?
• What is the standard initial therapy for active pulmonary TB?
• Rabies immune globulin is indicated in which scenario during post-exposure prophylaxis?
• For early localized Lyme disease, what is first-line therapy in nonpregnant patients?
• For late-stage syphilis, which test serves as the initial screening test?
• Empiric therapy for neutropenic fever typically involves which approach?
• In neonatal meningitis, initial empiric therapy commonly includes which regimen?
• Infection with E. coli O157:H7 is associated with which serious complication?
• Which statement about herpes simplex virus is correct?
• Which HIV drug class includes Efavirenz and Doravirine?
• Duke criteria major criteria for infective endocarditis?
• mRNA vaccines are approved for which age group?
• After completing the initial RIPE phase for active TB, which drugs are continued?
• Which COVID-19 vaccine is nanoparticle-based?
• Empiric therapy for postpartum endometritis commonly includes which antibiotic combination?
• For norovirus gastroenteritis, what is the mainstay of management?
• On CT imaging, which pattern is commonly seen in severe COVID-19?
• In non-inflammatory infectious diarrhea, are anti-peristaltic agents generally safe to use?
• Gardasil 9 covers which HPV genotypes?
• What testing modality is most sensitive for detecting acute SARS-CoV-2 infection?
• PCR testing for influenza has what typical sensitivity?
• For a traveler to India where P. falciparum chloroquine resistance is present, which prophylaxis is most appropriate?
• Initial resuscitation in sepsis includes which fluid regimen?
• Which statement is most accurate about non-albicans Candida species?
• Which of the following is a protease inhibitor (PI) used in HIV treatment?
• An alternative empiric regimen for postpartum endometritis includes which of the following?
• Salmonella gastroenteritis is commonly transmitted through which exposure?
• Postpartum endometritis empiric therapy requires coverage for anaerobes and Gram-negative rods; which regimen is standard?
• Which statement about herpes simplex virus (HSV) treatment is true?
• Prophylaxis for Toxoplasma encephalitis in HIV patients with a CD4 count below 100 cells per microliter is best achieved with which agent?
• Which antibiotic option is appropriate for Campylobacter or Shigella diarrhea with systemic symptoms?
• Which statement about Varicella-Zoster Virus reactivation is correct?
• What is the initial management of norovirus gastroenteritis?
• What is the recommended initial antiviral therapy for suspected herpes simplex virus encephalitis?
• Common adverse effects of integrase strand transfer inhibitors (INSTIs) include which of the following?
• Which group is at higher risk for developing severe COVID-19 disease?
• Enteric fever is most commonly caused by which organism?
• Treatment for mucormycosis includes which combination therapy?
• What is a standard initial therapy for latent TB infection?
• Pediatric dosing for remdesivir starts at what age and weight?
• How is noninvasive Salmonella gastroenteritis in healthy adults typically managed?
• Osteomyelitis is most commonly described as which of the following statements?
• What is the first-line antibiotic for Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
• In cholera, what is the mainstay initial therapy?
• Which formulation of amphotericin B is preferred for induction therapy in cryptococcal meningitis?
• Which antifungal is active against mucorales?
• What is the recommended treatment for gonorrhea with possible chlamydial coinfection?
• Which finding is typical in necrotizing soft tissue infection?
• Which test should be performed before starting abacavir-containing regimens due to hypersensitivity risk?
• Which statement about the Shingrix vaccine is true?
• Campylobacter jejuni is the most common bacterial cause of infectious diarrhea and is strongly associated with which exposure?
• Which statement best describes the management of necrotizing soft tissue infection?
• Which statement is a Duke major criterion for infective endocarditis?
• What is the most common cause of candidemia in ICU patients?
• In septic arthritis with suspected bacterial infection, which empiric antibiotic strategy is commonly used?
• Which scenario warrants antibiotic prophylaxis for infective endocarditis?
• Most common organism causing native valve endocarditis in IV drug users?
• Early syphilis is treated with which regimen?
• Which statement about HPV epidemiology is true?
• Which statement best describes the clinical exam findings in Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia relative to hypoxia?
• If initial blood cultures are negative in suspected osteomyelitis, what is the next essential diagnostic step?
• Which statement best describes HSV-2 and HSV-1 infection patterns?
• Cryptosporidiosis is diagnosed by which test?
• Gonorrhea is caused by which organism?
• 1-hour sepsis bundle major steps includes which action?
• Which antibiotic option is appropriate for cellulitis in a patient with no risk factors for MRSA?
• First-line therapy for ESBL-producing organisms?
• Shigellosis is associated with which setting?
• When should ART be initiated in HIV?
• Rubella in pregnancy can cause which of the following congenital outcomes?
• What is the recommended doxycycline duration for early Lyme disease?
• Campylobacter jejuni infection is associated with which neurologic complication?
• Which adjunctive therapy is indicated for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia when PaO2 is less than 70 mmHg?
• Empiric therapy for infective endocarditis after obtaining blood cultures typically includes which combination?
• In empiric therapy for HAP/VAP, which antibiotic provides MRSA coverage?
• NAAT testing for gonorrhea is typically performed on which specimens?
• Which NNRTI is associated with CNS adverse effects such as vivid dreams?
• Why are antibiotics generally avoided in suspected EHEC O157:H7 infections?
• Which food is classically associated with E. coli O157:H7 infection?
• Which statement correctly describes seasonal influenza vaccination recommendations?
• In diagnosing Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia, which test is considered the gold standard for diagnosis?
• Consolidation and maintenance therapy for cryptococcal meningitis should use which antifungal?
• Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of native valve endocarditis in which population?
• Treatment for Rocky Mountain spotted fever in children is best with which antibiotic?
• Vancomycin should be added to empiric neutropenic fever regimens if which condition is present?
• Which of the following is a SIRS criterion?
• Which tick species transmits Borrelia burgdorferi, the agent of Lyme disease?
• For Lyme disease in patients older than 8 years, the preferred initial therapy is:
• In suspected EHEC O157:H7 infection, what is the recommended management strategy?
• Which of the following is an alternative regimen for latent TB infection besides isoniazid?
• First-line treatment for chlamydia infection is which regimen?
• Which test best confirms Clostridioides difficile infection?
• Neonatal meningitis is most often caused by which pathogens, and what is the recommended empiric regimen?
• Treatment for uncomplicated gonorrhea with suspected chlamydial coinfection?
• Empiric IV therapy for suspected bacterial meningitis in adults 18–50 without immunocompromise?
• Which COVID-19 vaccine class is no longer available (expired use in 2023)?
• What predisposing factor is commonly associated with vaginal candidiasis?
• For suspected HSV infection with central nervous system involvement, which diagnostic test is preferred for detecting HSV DNA in CSF?
• How is HPV diagnosis typically established in clinical practice?
• Which agent is most appropriate for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia prophylaxis in HIV infection?
• Ampicillin should be added to empiric meningitis therapy to cover Listeria monocytogenes in which patients?
• If the animal involved in exposure cannot be found, what is recommended?
• Which drug is not part of the initial RIPE regimen for active TB?
• Which adjunctive therapy should be given with empiric meningitis treatment prior to culture results?
• What test is used to confirm Lyme disease after a positive screen?
• Which of the following correctly lists the components of qSOFA?
• Mumps incubation period is approximately?
• Primary syphilis classically presents with which finding?
• Disseminated gonococcal infection presenting with arthritis: which antibiotic strategy is used if chlamydia has not been excluded?
• Which test is used to diagnose infectious mononucleosis caused by Epstein-Barr virus?
• A key component of rabies post-exposure prophylaxis is:
• Which viruses are non-COVID coronaviruses that commonly cause colds?
• Which carbapenems are used for ESBL-producing organisms?
• Which component is part of tetanus management?
• What is the recommended interval for tetanus booster vaccination in adults who completed a primary tetanus-containing series?
• Which statement best describes the role of macrolides in CAP management for healthy outpatients?
• Among the complications of mumps, which is most common?
• Laboratory findings commonly associated with early anaplasmosis include which combination?
• Anaplasmosis is caused by which organism?
• Prophylaxis for PCP in HIV infection?
• Which of the following is an INSTI?
• Which regimen is recommended for CAP in patients with comorbidities?
• Which antibiotic is preferred for Lyme disease in pregnancy or children?
• What is a core principle of antibiotic stewardship?
• What is the preferred antifungal for invasive aspergillosis?
• Which feature differentiates inflammatory from non-inflammatory infectious diarrhea?
• In sepsis, which system is most commonly affected?
• Remdesivir outpatient therapy is given as an IV infusion within how many days of symptom onset?
• The progression of Clostridioides difficile infection often follows which sequence?
• In traveler's diarrhea due to noninvasive pathogens, what is the most appropriate initial management?
• Molnupiravir should be avoided in which population due to mutagenic concerns?
• Initial empiric therapy for candidemia should start with which approach?
• Which feature helps differentiate erysipelas from cellulitis?
• Erysipelas is an infection of the epidermis and dermis that is most commonly caused by which organism?
• Rapid influenza diagnostic tests (RIDTs) have what approximate sensitivity?
• Which statement best describes the Hib vaccine in preventing meningitis?
• Early sign at the bite site in rabies is which symptom?
• Which statement about Paxlovid (nirmatrelvir/ritonavir) is true?
• Prophylaxis for Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia in HIV patients with CD4 < 200 cells/µL is with which drug?
• Why is daptomycin not effective for pneumonia?
• What is the recommended treatment for Campylobacter jejuni infection in adults?
• What regimen is appropriate for typical outpatient CAP regimen for inpatient step-down?
• Anaplasmosis is transmitted by which tick species?
• For airborne isolation, which protective equipment is recommended?
• Tetanus is caused by a neurotoxin produced by which organism?
• Which Candida species is typically susceptible to fluconazole?
• Which influenza antiviral is an oral neuraminidase inhibitor?
• Which toxins are produced by Clostridioides difficile?
• What is the most common etiologic agent of bacterial meningitis in adults aged 18–50?
• In traveler's diarrhea, antibiotics are indicated for moderate-severe illness; which of the following summarizes this approach?
• What is the typical initial management of a furuncle (cutaneous abscess)?
• For bacterial meningitis in a patient aged 1 month to 50 years, what is a reasonable empiric regimen?
• In nonpregnant adults with early localized Lyme disease, which is first-line therapy?
• How is malaria definitively diagnosed?
• Temporal lobe abnormalities on MRI are most characteristic of which infection?
• Vibrio vulnificus infection is most commonly linked to ingestion of what food?
• What is the typical duration of isoniazid therapy for latent TB infection?
• Which statement correctly describes qSOFA scoring?
• The meningitis vaccination strategy includes vaccines against which organisms?
• Giardiasis is caused by which organism?
• Rabies post-exposure prophylaxis consists of which components?
• Which vaccines are included in the meningitis prevention strategy?
• Which class of HIV medications is commonly associated with lipodystrophy and metabolic side effects?